Joint Fires Course (JFC) Practice Exam

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• What does ROE stand for in this context?
• Which type of night illumination is defined as natural light from the moon and stars?
• Define CFL.
• Which staff member is responsible for synchronizing MNVR and support operations?
• An Airspace Coordination Area is defined as:
• A Restrictive Fire Line is defined as:
• Which term describes the process of determining how many fires are available to each major component?
• Which statement about allocation is true?
• When should the DD1972 be submitted?
• Which asset is listed as a Coalition USAF asset?
• Which two categories are described for description in the material under TACS agencies and AAGS agencies?
• What is a Zone of Fire?
• Which of the following is an Infantry Fighting Vehicle (IFV) classification?
• What are the major mission command activities of the operations process?
• Which statement best describes combat reconnaissance vehicles (VIC)?
• A Call for Fire must include which essential components?
• What is the purpose of Collateral Damage Estimation (CDE) in targeting?
• In a Call for Fire (CFF), what is the primary purpose of coordinating with fire support and air control assets?
• What are the four steps commonly included in the targeting process?
• Positive Control is established through designated control measures with the appropriate agencies in joint fires. Which pair is correct?
• Which SEAD asset provides GMTI and SAR, according to the asset list?
• What is a Master Fire Control and who typically serves in that role?
• Which detail is typically included in a target description to support accurate fires?
• Which term describes the area where ground combat units are deployed, excluding covering or screening forces?
• Which term is defined as the product resulting from the collection, processing, integration, analysis and interpretation of available information?
• What does MA stand for in planning?
• ACA rules of thumb include enabling simultaneous use of artillery and CAS. Which components support this plan?
• The 20 degree Laser safety zone extends a total of how many degrees?
• Which beam characteristic causes energy to spread over a greater area, reducing intensity?
• Collateral Damage Estimation (CDE) is best described as:
• Which agency is responsible for allocation of fires to units in the TACS/AAGS framework?
• Which term is the line of advance assigned to control movement toward the enemy?
• What information should Target Location data include to ensure accuracy?
• What is Target Location Error (TLE) and why is it important?
• Which element is most directly involved in deconflicting fires to prevent fratricide?
• What are the defined altitude ranges for low and very low altitude tactics?
• Define battlefield coordination line (BCL).
• Which artillery category is responsible for locating targets, guiding munitions, and assessing effects (BDA)?
• What are the components of a typical Call for Fire (CFF) message in order?
• Which term signifies that aircrew does not have visual contact with the target?
• The Fire Support Area (FSA) is the naval counterpart to which land-based fire support area?
• Who conducts tactical risk assessment?
• Which set correctly lists the three primary target effects used by fires?
• Explain the OODA loop and its relevance to fire support.
• What is a Fire Support Station (FSS)?
• What is Sustainment described as in the operation order?
• What is No-Fire Area (NFA) versus No-Strike area, and how are they used?
• Define Air Cooridor.
• What is described as the primary method to provide procedural control in a CAS environment?
• Which statement best describes the authority and certification differences between JTAC and JFO?
• In the Joint Targeting Cycle, what is the meaning of the End State?
• Which of the following is a rotor-wing (RW) system?
• Time on Target (TOT) is the planned time at which multiple fires impact the target; this is important because it ensures:
• What is the role of the Fire Support Coordination Center (FSCC) during a mission?
• How are target priorities determined and modified during operations?
• Which USAF asset is equipped with the AGM-88 HARM and the HARM targeting system pod for SEAD operations?
• Which statement correctly defines SEAD?
• Which order provides timely changes to existing orders?
• Who can act as the Joint Fires Observer (JFO) or JTAC in joint operations?
• Which criterion is part of the ACA establishment rules of thumb?
• An example of transferring from Type 1 to Type 3 control is which of the following?
• Name two Army rehearsals involving a TACP.
• Which of the following is a rule of thumb for ACA establishment?
• In ACA rules of thumb, what limits should be included?
• Name two main categories of air-delivered fires used in joint fires.
• What are the two means of accomplishing SEAD?
• Explain the impact of LOAC/ROE on fire support decisions.
• What is the role of the Airspace Control Authority (ACA) and airspace coordination in joint fires?
• In the tenets of air and space power, what term is represented when centralized control is used?
• What is an Air Cooridor?
• What is the purpose of the targeting process?
• Which term denotes the sighting of a target (non-friendly aircraft or enemy position)?
• Which term defines the area where a unit can maneuver and fire into an Engagement Area?
• What is the purpose of the Assessment step in the Joint Targeting Cycle?
• In laser employment, what must PRF match?
• Which definition correctly describes surveillance?
• Who coordinates Airspace control for air and missile defense operations?
• What does 'Danger Close' indicate in engagement planning?
• Which condition is essential for effective urban CAS?
• How is target location communicated to the firing unit during a Call for Fire (CFF)?
• Which of the following is NOT a primary step of the Joint Targeting Cycle (JTC)?
• Which statement about BCL is true?
• Which description best captures the Joint Targeting Cycle?
• During CAS planning, which sequence is part of the CAS Decision Making Process (DMP)?
• Compare JTAC and JFO in terms of roles, certification, and authority.
• In a Call for Fire, what information is typically included to enable rapid and accurate engagement?
• How are civilian protection considerations integrated into targeting decisions?
• How are phase lines used in fire support planning?
• Positive Control is the authority for aircraft to fire, and is established through designated control measures with which agencies?
• In joint fires planning, which statement correctly explains the relationship between apportionment and allocation?
• What is an Adjusted Fire and when is it used?
• Which aircraft are commonly used in the FAC(A) role?
• Which elements should be included in a Target Description?
• Which aircraft are listed for the US Navy in the FAC(A) role?
• Allocation is defined as the process of distributing the allocated fires among units, and the agency responsible is AAGS.
• What is a Kill Box and how is it used in joint fires?
• Which statement differentiates Free Fire Area (FFA) from Fire Support Area (FSA)?
• What is Coordination Altitude?
• Who is the senior Air Force liaison to the JFLCC?
• What are two methods of attack used in air-ground operations?
• Which SEAD asset is described as having 'find, fix, finish' capability in the Navy/Marine list?
• In CAS target engagement terminology, which term means the crew sees a specific reference point to help pilots?
• Which factor in urban environment increases risk to civilians and complicates CAS?
• Which of the following is NOT a system used to detect or track targets?
• Which term denotes a location that can be terrain- or force-oriented and is used to orient operations and facilitate changes in direction?
• What does the Command and Signal section include?
• Which statement correctly describes LOAL and LOB usage?
• Which term is defined as the line of advance assigned for the purpose of control, extending toward the enemy?
• In the planning sequence, which statement reflects apportionment followed by allocation?
• Which term describes the tactical mission task that renders the enemy or equipment incapable of interfering with a particular operation?
• What is MGRS used for in targeting?
• What are the components of a standard CFF message?
• Which statement best describes the roles of Target Development (TD) and Target Vetting (TV) in the targeting process?
• Which term indicates the forward-most positions of friendly forces in any operation?
• On the 9-line CAS brief, which line corresponds to the Target Description?
• What is the purpose of a Warning Order (WARNO) in a CFF?
• What does FSCM stand for and what is its role?
• Which intelligence discipline provides rapid equipment identification and geolocation but is susceptible to deception and LOS requirements?
• Which MDMP step involves the commander selecting the best COA to accomplish the mission?
• Which designation method is most directly affected by line-of-sight limitations and weather?
• What is weaponeering best described as, and what factors influence it?
• Which statement best describes IR Guided SAMs?
• In LASER designation operations, what does Bomb on Coordinate (BOC) require?
• Who is the Army liaison located in the AOC that provides selected operational functions between the Army Forces and the air component commander?
• Which item is LASER designation hardware?
• Which factor influences weaponeering?
• What does a No Fire Area indicate?
• Which coordinate formats are used for Target Location data?
• Which term is a location on the ground used to orient operations and facilitate changes in direction, possibly terrain- or force-oriented?
• What is the effect of ROE within a Free Fire Area (FFA)?
• On a standard close air support brief, which item is line 4 of the 9-line format?
• What steps are taken to prevent fratricide in targeting and fires?
• In SEAD, what distinguishes Active means?
• Define Target.
• Define High Value Target.
• What is Coordinating Level?
• Describe practical steps for ensuring accurate target identity before engagement.
• Which statement correctly defines the three types of control used in close air support?
• What does a No-Strike area primarily aim to prevent?
• What is a key safety consideration for LASER operations?
• What are the four steps in the IPB process?
• Which statement best differentiates apportionment from allocation?
• In ground-based infrared device brevity, what does SPARKLE indicate?
• What is the purpose of the Threat/Adversary, Situation, and Event templates?
• Which of the following is NOT a system used to attack targets?
• Define FSCL.
• In a nine-line format, which lines must always be read back for elevation and coordinates?
• Which Navy/Marine asset is described as 'find, fix, finish' for SEAD operations?
• Which element indicates the latest time information is valuable (LTIOV) on an RFI?
• Which asset is included in Coalition USAF assets alongside Tornado and F-16/F18 with AGM-88?
• Which term describes the process of determining which components receive which portion of the overall fires?
• What is the first step in the Military Decision Making Process?
• In MATCH SPARKLE brevity, what does the phrase mean?
• Which intelligence collection asset is explicitly listed as applicable for space-based information gathering?
• The laser envelope refers to the angular extent of the laser beam relative to the target line. The envelope is a total of how many degrees?
• Define the Fire Support Coordination Center (FSCC) and its primary function.
• Which agency is responsible for allocation within the TACS/AAGS framework?
• Which term describes a defensive location oriented on a likely enemy avenue of approach and forms part of a battle position?
• Which statement best describes a Kill Box (KILLBX)?
• Which targeting objective is defined as Destruction: 30% casualties or material damage (computed effects from fires)?
• Which targeting objective is described as a temporary degradation of enemy performance?
• Which term represents the foremost limit of the battlefield area where ground forces are deployed, excluding covering or screening forces?
• What determines which type of control you use in a CAS engagement?
• What is the purpose of a No-Fire Area (NFA) in planning fires?
• Which term delineates the surface area for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units or areas?
• What does EMS stand for in this context?
• Define Restricted Ops Zone ROZ.
• What does Spot Jitter describe in laser targeting?
• Which is a common problem associated with the urban environment?
• What is a Free Fire Area (FFA) and how does it influence targeting?
• What is IPB?
• How is coordination with allied assets achieved in JFC?
• JSEAD is defined as?
• In a Kill Box, what types of fires and airspace conditions may apply?
• Which annex contains the Counter Air Support (CAS) information?
• According to ACA rules of thumb, what is the typical holding distance for high altitude operations?
• In the planning process, apportionment primarily addresses which aspect?
• Which element is included in a Call for Fire message to describe the target?
• Which statement about deliberate targeting is true?
• Lock-On After Launch (LOAL) and Lock-On Before Launch (LOB) differ in when target designation occurs. Which statement is true?
• The Foremost limit of the battle area that conveys the commander’s intent in defense is known as what?
• Which area is the commander intends to contain and destroy the enemy force with the massed effects of all available weapons and systems?
• Which environmental conditions impact joint fires planning?
• How are weapon allocations determined and communicated to assets (artillery, CAS, naval)?
• Integrated plans require coordination among which commands?
• What is a laser safety zone as defined in the material?
• What is a Targeting Board and what does it do?
• What are the three basic characteristics that define an urban environment?
• Which factor is most essential to achieve Time on Target synchronization?
• Which agency is responsible for apportionment within the TACS/AAGS framework?
• A Restrictive Fire Area is best described as:
• Which statement best describes the Joint Targeting Cycle's assessment phase?
• Which asset provides GMTI and SAR capabilities for SEAD operations?
• What is a No-Fire Area (NFA) and how does it influence fires?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between apportionment and allocation?
• Which term indicates visual contact with a friendly aircraft or a ground position?
• Which LASER class is High power?
• Which elements are the mission critical elements?
• What does JFO stand for and what is its role?
• Which statement correctly differentiates intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance?
• Which artillery category provides short-range, high-angle fire support at company-level echelons?
• Define and describe the use of FSCM.
• How does assessment feed back into the Joint Targeting Cycle after a mission?
• What is apportionment in joint fires planning?
• What are the main target designation methods and their limitations?
• What is the Joint Fires Observer's role in CAS coordination?
• In the TACS/AAGS framework, which pairing correctly assigns the responsibility for apportionment and allocation?
• Which airspace control elements use Coordination Altitude?
• An example of allocation is:
• Which term denotes the forward-deployed line marking the most advanced positions of friendly forces in operation?
• Which are categories of LASER designation operations?
• What is a Mission Brief in the JFC context?
• Which statement is true about SEAD planning in the MDMP context?
• In the Joint Targeting Cycle, which step validates target legitimacy, priority, and collateral effects?
• What best defines a Fire Support Area (FSA)?
• Which components are included in the Execution phase?
• Which role is NOT typically a primary member of the brigade combat team targeting board?
• How does ROE influence fire support planning and execution?
• FSCL applies to which fires?
• Which role is NOT typically a primary member of the brigade combat team targeting board?
• What is the primary goal of airspace control?
• Which element describes the geographic position of the target to direct fires?
• What does ROPE describe in ground-based IR device brevity?
• LOAL indicates the laser is turned on after launch, with a delay. Which option describes this timing?
• An RW Hellfire Designator Zone is dangerous if it lies inside which zone?
• Which asset provides SIGINT and direction finding in the SEAD asset list?
• Which of the following are examples of Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCMs)?
• In the Threat/Adversary templates, what does the Situation component add?
• What is the difference between Direct Fire and Indirect Fire?
• Define High Payoff Target.
• Which control measure is used for management and coordination of operations and is typically an easily identified feature in the operating area?
• Target reflectivity in laser targeting is influenced by which phenomenon?
• What term describes the use of direct fires, supported by indirect fires, to engage an enemy without closing?
• A Free Fire Area is defined as: